已知函数$f(x) = \frac{1}{x^2 + 1}$,则$\int_0^1f(x)\mathrm{d}x$的值为多少?

解法一:直接使用反三角函数公式

令$x = \tan t$,则$\mathrm{d}x = \frac{1}{\cos^2t}\mathrm{d}t$,并且$x = 0$时$t = 0$,$x = 1$时$t = \frac{\pi}{4}$,则有:

$$\int_0^1f(x)\mathrm{d}x = \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}}\frac{1}{\tan^2t + 1}\frac{1}{\cos^2t}\mathrm{d}t = \left[\arctan(\tan t)\right]_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}} = \frac{\pi}{4} - 0 = \frac{\pi}{4}$$

解法二:使用分式分解

将$f(x)$写成:

$$f(x) = \frac{1}{x^2 + 1} = \frac{1}{(x + i)(x - i)} = \frac{1}{2i}\left(\frac{1}{x + i} - \frac{1}{x - i}\right)$$

则有:

$$\int_0^1f(x)\mathrm{d}x = \frac{1}{2i}\left[\ln(x + i) - \ln(x - i)\right]_0^1 = \frac{1}{2i}\left[\ln\frac{1 + i}{1 - i} - \ln(-i)\right] = \frac{\pi}{4}$$

因为$\ln(-i) = \ln|i| + \mathrm{i}\arg(-i) = \ln 1 + \mathrm{i}\left(-\frac{\pi}{2}\right) = \mathrm{i}\left(-\frac{\pi}{2}\right)$。

综上,$\int_0^1f(x)\mathrm{d}x = \frac{\pi}{4}$。

用 Python 写 Hello World 内容:

print('Hello World')

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